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Originally Posted by Prudence
So, in a very simplified fashion, the existing state of affairs is that you can't treat body parts like property, except for blood and sperm/eggs. Except that "giving" your sperm to a lover isn't the same as giving them a book or a box of chocolates. That's why laws get re-written and refined.
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Yes, but whether it was a gift or not shouldn't affect a fraud claim. Afterall, there are plenty of fraud cases that have been prosecuted successfully in which the victim willingly handed over money or property. But willingly or not, if the recipient uses that "gift" in a way that differs from the stated purpose, it's generally defined as fraud. Heck, I'd go so far as to call this case extortion since it's not even about the initial transfer of property (which is what fraud usually covers), but about the future demand for payments (child support) based on fraudulent use of the gift.