Quote:
Originally Posted by JWBear
In my admittedly non-expert opinion, no. If I remember correctly, neither the original Constitution nor the Bill of Rights defines who can vote. The 15th Amendment forbade disenfranchisement on the basis of race, but not gender. Gender was specifically addressed in the 19th. Until then, nothing guaranteed universal suffrage.
|
(following Alex's devil's advocate argument...) If nothing guaranteed universal suffrage until the 15th and 19th amendments, even in the presence of the 14th amendment, what gives the universal right to marriage?