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					Originally Posted by Ghoulish Delight  And, iSm, as the various explanations point out, there's a ton of historical precedent for using IIII instead of IV, it's hardly "incorrect". | 
	
 Really?  I don't see anything above about IIII's use except as to clockery.  Thee's no mention of it ever being used as a legitimate Roman numeral in other contexts, except one brief hint that the God Jupiter may have objected?  
But I have to wonder why, if Louis XIV preferred IIII over IV, he wasn't really Louis XIIII?  
