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Originally Posted by scaeagles
So why did Karlton say was bound by precedent of the 9th Circuit Court of Appeals when they were overruled? That makes no sense at all.
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Is the case being thrown out originally on a technicality the same as being overruled? The technicality doesn't exist this time, therefore either does what the Supreme Court originally ruled. I could be mistaken but that's how it reads to me.