And further more...
http://www.msnbc.msn.com/id/11393473/
If FISA is going to be modified to "accommodate the NSA program", would that not imply that it does
not currently "accommodate" it and that therefore the President was violating said law? I mean, do they think that this some sort of inverse "Ex Post Facto" thing where if they vote to change the law after they break it, then they retroactively are innocent?