DeLay Indicted

[scaeagles]

The reason for the second indictment? The first one was so flawed that Earle had to do a CYA.

You see, the first indictment was for something not illegal when it was done. So it had to be dropped or Earle would look like a fool. To try to save face, he got another indictment on something not included in the first - money laundering.

Being that money laundering is a serious crime and the grand jury was in session for 6 months, would it have not made more sense to include that in the original indictment? I would guess that this means there is not a strong case for money laundering and that it was brought in secondarily by Earle because of how stupid he looks regarding the first.

I stand by my political motivation argument.

[Gemini Cricket]

Originally Posted by scaeagles

I stand by my political motivation argument.

Politically motivated..? Probably. Just like it was when the Repubs wanted to impeach Bubba. Same smell, different taste.

[scaeagles]

Originally Posted by Gemini Cricket

Politically motivated..? Probably. Just like it was when the Repubs wanted to impeach Bubba. Same smell, different taste.

I find it interesting that whenever a someone brings up Clinton or something Clinton did in another thread that many say "But Clinton isn't the President! That was then, this is now!". However, it's perfectly fine to discuss republicans impeaching Clinton in this context.

[wendybeth]

Originally Posted by scaeagles

I find it interesting that whenever a someone brings up Clinton or something Clinton did in another thread that many say "But Clinton isn't the President! That was then, this is now!". However, it's perfectly fine to discuss republicans impeaching Clinton in this context.

The Republican's going after Clinton example is utilised far less than the invocation of Clinton, and is usually in context to the issue. (As opposed to a means of deflecting attention when things get uncomfortable). Come on- the whole 'blame Clinton' thing has gotten to the point of Godwinism.