MLB '12

[Moonliner]

Originally Posted by Strangler Lewis

Why, if as it says, the ball hit the bat? I also think the home team would forfeit for failing to provide playable grounds.

I think he has it correct. The batter is show to be "unaware" and so does not swing at all, largely because the ball reaches him long before he could even twitch.

Reading the rule he cites, if the batter is hit by the ball and is not swinging at the pitch they are awarded a base.

6.08
The batter becomes a runner and is entitled to first base without liability to be put out (provided he advances to and touches first base) when --
(a) Four “balls” have been called by the umpire;
Rule 6.08(a) Comment: A batter who is entitled to first base because of a base on balls must go to first base and touch the base before other base runners are forced to advance. This applies when bases are full and applies when a substitute runner is put into the game.
If, in advancing, the base runner thinks there is a play and he slides past the base before or after touching it he may be put out by the fielder tagging him. If he fails to touch the base to which he is entitled and attempts to advance beyond that base he may be put out by tagging him or the base he missed.
(b) He is touched by a pitched ball which he is not attempting to hit unless (1) The ball is in the strike zone when it touches the batter, or (2) The batter makes no attempt to avoid being touched by the ball;
If the ball is in the strike zone when it touches the batter, it shall be called a strike, whether or not the batter tries to avoid the ball. If the ball is outside the strike zone when it touches the batter, it shall be called a ball if he makes no attempt to avoid being touched.
APPROVED RULING: When the batter is touched by a pitched ball which does not entitle him to first base, the ball is dead and no runner may advance.

Although you could make a fairly good argument that the batter made no attempt to move out of the way of the ball.

[Alex]

Originally Posted by Moonliner

I think he has it correct. The batter is show to be "unaware" and so does not swing at all, largely because the ball reaches him long before he could even twitch.

Reading the rule he cites, if the batter is hit by the ball and is not swinging at the pitch they are awarded a base.

Although you could make a fairly good argument that the batter made no attempt to move out of the way of the ball.

If the ball hits the bat first, it doesn't matter if it then hits the player. If it hits the player first it doesn't matter if it then hits the bat.

Assuming a normal stance I think it is safe to assume particles would have hit the player first.

That leaves a discretionary ruling on the batter not attempting to avoid the ball. But umpires rarely call that unless they feel the player was actually trying to get hit so I think it would be unlikely.

Another fundamentally important question is what inning this was in so that we know whether the game needs to be replayed, called with the current score, or continued later if tied.